וְתֵדַ֨ע וְתַשְׂכֵּ֜ל מִן־מֹצָ֣א דָבָ֗ר לְהָשִׁיב֙ וְלִבְנ֤וֹת יְרֽוּשָׁלַ֙͏ִם֙ עַד־מָשִׁ֣יחַ נָגִ֔יד שָׁבֻעִ֖ים שִׁבְעָ֑ה וְשָׁבֻעִ֞ים שִׁשִּׁ֣ים וּשְׁנַ֗יִם תָּשׁוּב֙ וְנִבְנְתָה֙ רְח֣וֹב וְחָר֔וּץ וּבְצ֖וֹק הָעִתִּֽים׃
You must know and understand: From the issuance of the word to restore and rebuild Jerusalem until the [time of the] anointed leader is seven weeks; and for sixty-two weeks it will be rebuilt, square and moat, but in a time of distress.
Jews for Jesus or other Christians will take one word and assume it has to mean one thing in order to prove the truth of their claims. Here, they use the word "Messiah" to mean the Messiah son of David, and since this is referring to Messiah in the period before the 2nd Temple, this must be referring to Jesus.
The usage of the word "Mashiach/Messiah" here is NOT referring to the Jewish Messiah, heir of David, who will redeem the Jews & the world.
The word "Messiah" does not always mean Messiah (in the Messianic sense) in the Biblical literature, as will be demonstrated.
Jews have been understanding these texts for thousands of years, let's see what the greatest commentators have to say.
עד משיח נגיד. זמן תנתן מיום החורבן עד בא כרש מלך פרס שאמר הקב"ה עליו שהוא ישוב ויבנה עירו וקראו משיחו ונגידו שנא' כה אמר יהוה למשיחו לכורש וגו' הוא יבנה עירי וגלותי ישלח וגו':
until the anointed king Time will be given from the day of the destruction until the coming of Cyrus, king of Persia, about whom the Holy One, blessed be He, said that he would return and build His city, and He called him His anointed and His king, as it says (Isa. 45:1): “So said the Lord to His anointed one, to Cyrus etc.” (verse 13): “He shall build My city and free My exiles, etc.”
Rashi understands this to be referring to Cyrus the King of Persia.
What does Mashiach mean here then? It means what it always mean... "annointed"! Cyrus is the "annointed one" to send the Jews back to Jerusalem and rebuild the city there.
עד משיח נגיד שבועים שבעה - והנה תשע עשרה שנה שהם מלכות כורש ואחשורוש ושנתים לדריוש והוא מלך י"ב שנה, וככה כתוב בספר מלכי פרס ועשרים שנה מארתחששתא המלך.
עד משיח נגיד שבועים שבעה - והנה תשע עשרה שנה שהם מלכות כורש ואחשורוש ושנתים לדריוש והוא מלך י"ב שנה, וככה כתוב בספר מלכי פרס ועשרים שנה מארתחששתא המלך.
Same thing here - Ibn Ezra understands Messiah to be referring to Cyrus & his kingdom .. absolutely nothing to do with the Messianic Savior, the son of David, who is referenced throughout Tanach.
However, how do we know these commentators are not saying this post-Christianity's existence as a form of Jewish apologetics?
כֹּֽה־אָמַ֣ר יהוה לִמְשִׁיחוֹ֮ לְכ֣וֹרֶשׁ אֲשֶׁר־הֶחֱזַ֣קְתִּי בִֽימִינ֗וֹ לְרַד־לְפָנָיו֙ גּוֹיִ֔ם וּמׇתְנֵ֥י מְלָכִ֖ים אֲפַתֵּ֑חַ לִפְתֹּ֤חַ לְפָנָיו֙ דְּלָתַ֔יִם וּשְׁעָרִ֖ים לֹ֥א יִסָּגֵֽרוּ׃
Thus said GOD to Cyrus, the anointed one— Having grasped his right hand, Treading down nations before him, Ungirding the loins of kings, Opening doors before him And letting no gate stay shut:
Clear Textual Proof that the word Messiah has been used to refer to non-Jewish kings. Daniel is just copying Isaiah's wording style. And in context, it makes a lot more sense to be referring to Cyrus than it does to be referring to the Messianic savior.
I believe we have PROVEN our case that Daniel 9:25 CANNOT be used as evidence for the question of who is THE messiah according to the biblical literature, it has nothing to do with it!
We will now move onto a new issue, Isaiah 52-53.
הִנֵּ֥ה יַשְׂכִּ֖יל עַבְדִּ֑י יָר֧וּם וְנִשָּׂ֛א וְגָבַ֖הּ מְאֹֽד׃
“Indeed, My servant shall prosper, Be exalted and raised to great heights.
וַיהוה חָפֵ֤ץ דַּכְּאוֹ֙ הֶחֱלִ֔י אִם־תָּשִׂ֤ים אָשָׁם֙ נַפְשׁ֔וֹ יִרְאֶ֥ה זֶ֖רַע יַאֲרִ֣יךְ יָמִ֑ים וְחֵ֥פֶץ יהוה בְּיָד֥וֹ יִצְלָֽח׃
But GOD chose to crush him by disease, That, if he made himself an offering for guilt, He might see offspring and have long life, And that through him GOD’s purpose might prosper.
Jews for Jesus and Christian Apologists will attempt to argue that the "Servant" who is suffering (from G-D's hand) and rejected by the people is referring to the Messiah.
Once they "prove" this is referring to the Messiah, they argue that Jesus fits this profile better than anyone.
We will demonstrate how flawed this approach is. Firstly, there are many, many opinions (Rashi Ibn Ezra R Yosef Kimchi Malbim Rabbi Dabid Kimchi (Radak), and others who understood the Servant to be referring to the Jewish People as a whole. They have a lot of evidence for their opinion (the beginnings of Isaiah 52 and 54), along with scriptural proof that the Jewish People as a whole are often referred to in the Biblical literature as a servant of G-D in the singular.
נִבְזֶה֙ וַחֲדַ֣ל אִישִׁ֔ים אִ֥ישׁ מַכְאֹב֖וֹת וִיד֣וּעַ חֹ֑לִי וּכְמַסְתֵּ֤ר פָּנִים֙ מִמֶּ֔נּוּ נִבְזֶ֖ה וְלֹ֥א חֲשַׁבְנֻֽהוּ׃
He was despised, shunned by others, A man of suffering, familiar with disease.As one who hid his face from us, He was despised, we held him of no account.
נבזה וחדל אישים. היה, כן דרך הנביא הזה מזכיר כל ישראל כאיש אחד אל תירא עבדי יעקב ואף כאן הנה ישכיל עבדי בבית יעקב אמר ישכיל ל' הצלחה הוא כמו ויהי דוד לכל דרכיו משכיל (שמואל א י״ח:י״ד):
Despised and rejected by men was he. So is the custom of this prophet: he mentions all Israel as one man, e.g., (44:2), “Fear not, My servant Jacob”; (44:1) “And now, hearken, Jacob, My servant.” Here too (52:13), “Behold My servant shall prosper,” he said concerning the house of Jacob. יַשְׂכִּיל is an expression of prosperity. Comp. (I Sam. 18:14) “And David was successful (מַשְׂכִּיל) in all his ways.”
As can be seen, repeatedly throughout the chapter 40s, Isaiah is referring to the Jewish people as "My Servant" (with Jacob being synonymous with the Jewish people, of course).
הנה ישכיל עבדי. הנה באחרית הימים יצליח עבדי יעקב צדיקים שבו:
Behold My servant shall prosper Behold, at the end of days, My servant, Jacob, [i.e.,] the righteous among him, shall prosper.
הנה ישכיל עבדי. הפרשה הזאת נאמרה על גלות ישראל, וקרא אותו עבדי כמו שאמר ואתם ישראל עבדי יעקב אשר בחרתיך, אמר הנה יבא עת שיצליח עבדי וירום ונשא וגבה מאד:
נה ישכיל עבדי. הפרשה הזאת נאמרה על גלות ישראל, וקרא אותו עבדי כמו שאמר ואתם ישראל עבדי יעקב אשר בחרתיך, אמר הנה יבא עת שיצליח עבדי וירום ונשא וגבה מאד:
הנה ישכיל עבדי. אז יצלח עבדי ישראל וקראם כולם בל׳ יחיד כדרך המקרא במקומות רבות:
הנה ישכיל עבדי. אז יצלח עבדי ישראל וקראם כולם בל׳ יחיד כדרך המקרא במקומות רבות:
Rashi, Rabbi David Kimchi, and Metzudat David here understand the servant to be referring to the people of Israel through the usage of the term "My Servant". He shows how this same prophet, Isaiah, refers to the Jewish People as a Servant in the singular.
וְעַתָּ֥ה שְׁמַ֖ע יַֽעֲקֹ֣ב עַבְדִּ֑י וְיִשְׂרָאֵ֖ל בָּחַ֥רְתִּי בֽוֹ׃
But hear, now, O Jacob My servant, Israel whom I have chosen!
As can be seen, the same term 10 chapters earlier is CLEARLY used to describe the People of Israel. This isn't Jacob literally, obviously, as Jacob died way before Isaiah's time, according to the Torah/Bible.
הנה ישכיל עבדי. זאת הפרשה קשה מאד: אמרו תועי רוח שהוא רמז לאלהיה', ויפרשו עבדי הגוף, וזה לא יתכן, כי הגוף לא ישכיל ואפי' כשאדם חי, ועוד מה טעם יראה זרע (יאריך ימים), והוא לא היה לו בן, ועוד יאריך ימים ולא היה כן, ועוד ואת עצומים יחלק שלל, והראיה גמורה כי למעלה, כי הולך לפניכם יהוה, והם ישראל, ואחר כך רני עקרה, והיא כנסת ישראל, והנה טעם עבדי, כל מי שהיה בגלות מישראל והוא עבד השם, ורבים פירשוהו על משיח, בעבור שאמרו קדמונינו ז"ל [מדרש רבה איכה א' ט"ז] כי ביום שחרב בית המקדש נולד משיח, והוא אסור בזיקי', והנה אין טעם לפסוקים רבים, נבזה וחדל אישי', מעוצר וממשפט לוקח, ויתן את רשעי' קברו, ומה טעם יראה זרע יאריך ימים, והגאון רב סעדיה ז"ל פירש כל הפרשה על ירמיה ויפה פירש וטעם יזה גוים רבים בפיו בדרך נבואתו, כיונק לפניו גם כתב בתחלת ספרו (ירמיה א' י') כי קטן היה כאשר נתנבא, ויהוה הפגיע בו והוא חטא רבים נשא כי כן כתוב זכר עמדי לפניך לבקש עליהם טובה [שם י"ח כ'], כשה לטבח יובל וכן כתוב ואני ככבש אלוף יובל לטבח [שם י"א י"ט], ופירש ואת עצומים יחלק שלל על ארוחה ומשאת שנתן לו רב טבחי' [שם מ' ה'], והנכון בעיני כי כל הפרשה דבקה כי מה טעם להזכיר ירמיהו אחר הנחמות ולפני הנחמות, והנה ידבר על כל עבד יהוה שהוא בגלות, או יהיה עבדי כמו ישראל עבדי, וזה קרוב מזה:
The passage which follows offers great difficulties. The Christians refer it to Jesus, and explain my servant to indicate the body. This is wrong; the body cannot be wise, even during the life of man. Again, what is the meaning of he shall see his seed (53:10), he shall prolong his days (ib.)? This was not in fact the case (me: meaning Jesus did not have children). Again, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong (53:12)[me: Jesus never did this either]. The best proof, however, is the circumstance that this passage is preceded by the Lord will go before you, etc., which undoubtedly refers to the Israelites, and is followed by Sing, O barren, etc., which is likewise addressed to the Israelites. My servant. The Israelites, who are the servants of the Lord, and are now in exile. Many believe that Messiah is meant by this expression, because our ancient teachers said that Messiah was born on the day on which the temple was destroyed, that he was, as it were, bound in chains, etc.; but many verses in this passage cannot be explained on this supposition. Comp. He is despised and rejected of men, he was taken from prison and judgment, and he made his grave with the wicked, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days. The Gaon R. Saadiah refers the whole passage to Jeremiah. His explanation is beautiful; he says: he shall scatter many nations by his words, by his prophecy. Comp. Jer. 1:10. As a tender plant. Jeremiah was young when he began to prophesy (Jer. 1:6). And the Lord hath laid on him the iniquity of all of us; he took away the sin of many. Comp. Remember that I stood before thee, to speak good for them, and to turn away the wrath from them (ibid. 18:20). He is brought as a lamb to the slaughter. Comp. But I was like a lamb or an ox that is brought to the slaughter (ibid. 11:19). And he shall divide the spoil with the strong. Jeremiah received presents and gifts from the Babylonian chief of the guard (ibid. 40:5). But I think that this passage must be connected with the chapters that procede and follow. What reason is there for mentioning Jeremiah here after some of the comforting prophecies, and before others of the same kind ? The singular, my servant, is used because the prophet speaks of every one that is a servant of the Lord and suffers in exile, or because ישראל עבדי ═ )עבדי my servant Israel,) refers to the whole nation; the latter reason is more probable.
Ibn Ezra ALSO understands this to be referring to the Jewish People and brings a proof for it (the source below) that logically, it makes most sense to say the Servant is the Jewish People based on the context.
Additionally, he mentions the argument of the "servant" referring to Jesus and rejects it for several reasons!
כִּ֣י לֹ֤א בְחִפָּזוֹן֙ תֵּצֵ֔אוּ וּבִמְנוּסָ֖ה לֹ֣א תֵלֵכ֑וּן כִּֽי־הֹלֵ֤ךְ לִפְנֵיכֶם֙ יהוה וּמְאַסִּפְכֶ֖ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִשְׂרָאֵֽל׃ {ס}
For you will not depart in haste, Nor will you leave in flight; For GOD is marching before you, The God of Israel is your rear guard.
The Verse before the mention of the Servant flourishing (Indeed, My servant shall prosper, Be exalted and raised to great heights 52:13), G-D is speaking to and about the Jewish People! This is incontestable.
This is a clear textual indication that the verse is speaking about the Jewish People.
Additionally, the entire beginning of Isaiah 52 and 54 is speaking about the Jewish People! It only makes sense that this verse is a continuation of that theme.
וּמִן קֳדָם יהוה הֲוָת רַעֲוָא לְמִצְרַף וּלְדַכָּאָה יַת שְׁאָרָא דְעַמֵהּ בְּדִיל לְנַקָאָה מֵחוֹבִין נַפְשֵׁיהוֹן יֶחֱזוּן בְּמַלְכוּת מְשִׁיחֵיהוֹן יִסְגוּן בְּנִין וּבְנָן יוֹרְכוּן יוֹמִין וְעָבְדֵי אוֹרַיְתָא דַייָ בִּרְעוּתֵהּ יִצְלְחוּן:
And it was the pleasure of the Lord to refine and to purify the remnant of His people, in order to cleanse their souls from sin, that they might see the kingdom of their messiah, that their sons and daughters might multiply, and prolong their days, and those that keep the law of the Lord shall prosper through His pleasure.
Targum Yonasan understands this verse in 53:10 to be referring to the PEOPLE of Israel, not a single person.
אספרה אל חק. מסופרים הם בחוקה של תורה ובחוקן של נביאים וכתובים. בחוקה של תורה (שמות ד כב) בני בכורי ישראל בחוקה של נביאים (ישעיה נב יג) הנה ישכיל עבדי ירום ונשא. מה כתיב בתריה (שם מב א) הן עבדי אתמך בו. בכתובים (תהלים קי א) נאם יהוה לאדוני. יהוה אמר אלי בני אתה. וכתוב אחר אומר (דניאל ז יג) וארו עם ענני שמיא. יהוה אמר אלי בני אתה. א"ר יודן כל הנקמות הללו בחוקו של מלך מלכי המלכים הקב"ה. כל כך למה שהוא עוסק בתורה. דבר אחר בני אתה. מכאן תשובה לאומרים יש לו בן. ואת מותיב להון בן לי אתה אינו אומר אלא בני אתה כעבד שעושה לו רבו קורת רוח ואומר לו אנא מחבב לך כברי. (ר' הונא אמר לשלשה חלקים נחלקו היסורין. אחת נטלו אבות העולם וכל הדורות ואחת דורו של שמד ואחת דורו של משיח). וכד תיתי שעתיה אומר הקב"ה עלי לבראתו בריה חדשה. וכן הוא אומר אני היום ילדתיך. הא שעתא בריית ליה. וכן הוא אומר (מלכים א-א ו) ואותו ילדה אחרי אבשלום. וכי אמו של אבשלום ילדה לאדוניה והלא זה בן מעכה וזה בן חגית אלא מה זה עשה רכב ופרשים אף זה עשה כן ומה זה היה בעל מחלוקת אף זה כן ומה זה חמשים איש רצים לפניו אף זה כן:
"I will speak of the statutes; they are recounted in the law of the Torah, and in the laws of the prophets and the writings. In the law of the Torah (Exodus 4:22), 'Israel is My firstborn son,' in the laws of the prophets (Isaiah 52:13), 'Behold, My servant shall prosper, he shall be exalted and lifted up.' What is written afterwards (Isaiah 52:15), 'So shall he startle many nations, kings shall shut their mouths because of him, for that which had not been told them shall they see, and that which they had not heard shall they perceive.' In the writings (Psalms 110:1), 'The Lord said to my lord, "Sit at My right hand." What is written afterwards? (Psalm 110:4), 'You are a priest forever, in the manner of Melchizedek.' Rabbi Yudan said: all these retributions were given in accordance with the laws of the King of Kings, the Holy One, blessed be He. Why is this so? Because of his occupation with the Torah. 'You are My son' - from here we learn that he has a son. And when people say to him, 'You have a son,' he does not say, 'I have a son,' but rather, 'You are My son,' like a servant whom his master loves and says to him, 'I hold you dear as my own son.' Rabbi Huna said: the sufferings are divided into three parts: one part was taken by the patriarchs and all the generations; one part by the generation of the rebellion; and one part by the generation of the Messiah. And when the time comes, the Holy One, blessed be He, says, 'It is upon me to create a new creation.' And thus it says, 'Today I have begotten you.' At that time, a new creation was created. And it says (2 Samuel 3:3), 'And his second, Chileab, of Abigail the wife of Nabal the Carmelite; and the third, Absalom the son of Maacah the daughter of Talmai king of Geshur.' But wasn't Absalom born to Adonijah's mother? Isn't this one the son of Maacah and that one the son of Haggith? But just as this one had chariots and horses, so did the other. And just as this one caused a dispute, so did the other. And just as this one had fifty runners before him, so did the other."
הָא יַצְלַח עַבְדִי מְשִׁיחָא יְרוּם וְיִסְגֵי וְיִתְקוֹף לַחֲדָא:
Behold, my servant the messiah shall prosper, he shall be exalted and extolled, and he shall be very strong.
However, over here, Yonasan Ben David understands this to be referring to the Messiah. He is not alone in this understanding; Nachmanides understands it to be referring to the Messiah as well.
However, even these commentators, such as Nahmanides, UNABASHEDLY REJECTED JESUS AS THE MESSIAH.
Nahmanides even had a famous polemical debate in Barcelona with Pablo Christiani in front of the King of Spain where he denied Jesus being the Messiah.
So even if you did concede this passage referred to a single individual who is the Messiah, this is by no means proof for Jesus.
Why?
A) as Ibn Ezra noted, many of the verses within this description of the servant do not fit Jesus's profile.
B) There are many other criteria to be the Messiah beyond the descriptions in this passage (delivering world peace,bring universal knowledge of G-D into the world, return all the tribes of Israel back to Israel proper, etc.)
These things have NOT occurred. If Jesus comes back from the dead and then does all these things, you can argue that he is the Messiah. However, until someone fulfills all the criteria of the Messiah, how can you say he is the Messiah? There is no evidence for it.
That's like saying the Rambam, who was a descendant of David, is the Messiah. He was rejected & despised at certain points, and he fulfilled the criteria of being of Messianic lineage (Davidic descent). However, he did not fulfill the rest of these criteria, so it is absolutely nonsensical to suggest Rambam (who is dead) was the Messiah!
It is the same thing with Jesus.
I hope this matter has been made clear, and you will now be able to have the sources & evidence needed to reject the ridiculous lies of the Jews for Jesus people who want to compel you to join their religion based on a corrupted understanding of Daniel & Isaiah.
Something else that should be discussed is the issue of "The Son" and how Christians claim that this idea of G-D's plurality is a PRE-CHRISTIAN tradition in the Biblical literature, not a Christian concoction. The 2 main sources I've seen Christians cite as evidence for this claim is Proverbs 30:4 along with Isaiah 9:5.
Let's go to Proverbs 30:4 first.
דִּבְרֵ֤י ׀ אָג֥וּר בִּן־יָקֶ֗ה הַמַּ֫שָּׂ֥א נְאֻ֣ם הַ֭גֶּבֶר לְאִיתִיאֵ֑ל לְאִ֖יתִיאֵ֣ל וְאֻכָֽל׃
30:1 The words of Agur son of Jakeh, [man of] Massa; The speech of the man to Ithiel, to Ithiel and Ucal:
30:2 I am brutish, less than a man;
I lack common sense.
30:3 I have not learned wisdom,
Nor do I possess knowledge of the Holy One.
So these are the first verses of the chapter preceding the 4th verse which some Christians cite as evidence for the claim discussed above.
מִ֤י עָלָֽה־שָׁמַ֨יִם ׀ וַיֵּרַ֡ד מִ֤י אָֽסַף־ר֨וּחַ ׀ בְּחׇפְנָ֡יו מִ֤י צָֽרַר־מַ֨יִם ׀ בַּשִּׂמְלָ֗ה מִ֭י הֵקִ֣ים כׇּל־אַפְסֵי־אָ֑רֶץ מַה־שְּׁמ֥וֹ וּמַֽה־שֶּׁם־בְּ֝נ֗וֹ כִּ֣י תֵדָֽע׃
Who has ascended heaven and come down?
Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hand?
Who has wrapped the waters in his garment?
Who has established all the extremities of the earth?
What is his name or his son’s name, if you know it?
Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hand?
Who has wrapped the waters in his garment?
Who has established all the extremities of the earth?
What is his name or his son’s name, if you know it?
This verse identifies G-D and His "son" - Christians will like to claim this proves that G-D has a "son", that this is pre-Christian plurality of G-D, and this is referring to Jesus.
However, many many assumptions are being made here.
First and foremost, the context of the first 3 verses needs to be taken into account - where the speaker, Agur, starts off by saying he knows nothing about wisdom or G-D and then proceeds to say verse 4. His whole intention in verse 4 is that we don't know anything about G-D!
Proverbs 30:4 isn’t revealing a divine “son” — it’s using rhetorical questions to emphasize how unknowable and incomparable God is. The speaker admits he doesn’t even understand God Himself — so when he says, “What is His name, and what is His son’s name, if you know?” he’s challenging the reader: “Do you really think you understand God or anyone who could possibly be like Him?”
It’s a poetic way of saying: “You know nothing.” The verse is not introducing a second divine being, it’s underlining human ignorance and awe — not theology. The context (vv. 1–3) is about admitting one’s lack of wisdom, and the conclusion (v. 5) affirms faith in God alone.
מה שמו. הוא עניין מליצה כאומר לזולת אם היה מי כמוהו אמור נא מה שמו או אם שכחת שמו אמור שם בנו אם תדע שהיה מי מאז דוגמתו ור״ל ומאחר שלא היה מעולם מי יערוך אליו איך מלאה לבי לנטות מדבריו על פי אומדן הדעת ואמר כמתרעם על עצמו ותוהא על הראשונות ומלמד דעת לבל יאחז מי דרכו להשען על חכמתו:
מה שמו. הוא עניין מליצה כאומר לזולת אם היה מי כמוהו אמור נא מה שמו או אם שכחת שמו אמור שם בנו אם תדע שהיה מי מאז דוגמתו ור״ל ומאחר שלא היה מעולם מי יערוך אליו איך מלאה לבי לנטות מדבריו על פי אומדן הדעת ואמר כמתרעם על עצמו ותוהא על הראשונות ומלמד דעת לבל יאחז מי דרכו להשען על חכמתו
Indeed, Metzudat David understands the verses exactly as I just explained it.
Furthermore, where do we see the word "son" used throughout the biblical literature? In the 5 Books of Moses/Chumash, there is only one time where G-D's son is referenced - who is it?
וְאָמַרְתָּ֖ אֶל־פַּרְעֹ֑ה כֹּ֚ה אָמַ֣ר יהוה בְּנִ֥י בְכֹרִ֖י יִשְׂרָאֵֽל׃
Then you shall say to Pharaoh, ‘Thus says יהוה: Israel is My first-born son.
This is the ONLY PLACE where G-D's "son/firstborn" is identified in Chumash, and it is the Jewish people!
So to be clear:
A) The context of the verses points to the "son" not being understand as referring to some divine entity, but is a rhetorical device to note that the author knows nothing about G-D
B) We will further note that "the son" is not mentioned again for the remainder of the entire book of Proverbs
C) Most significantly, the only reference to G-D's child in Chumash is to the Israelite/Jewish people, not any divine entity.
While there is more that could be said, this is not meant to be an exhaustive overview of these verses. Let us now go to Isaiah 9:5.
כִּֽי־יֶ֣לֶד יֻלַּד־לָ֗נוּ בֵּ֚ן נִתַּן־לָ֔נוּ וַתְּהִ֥י הַמִּשְׂרָ֖ה עַל־שִׁכְמ֑וֹ וַיִּקְרָ֨א שְׁמ֜וֹ פֶּ֠לֶא יוֹעֵץ֙ אֵ֣ל גִּבּ֔וֹר אֲבִי־עַ֖ד שַׂר־שָׁלֽוֹם׃
For a child has been born to us,A son has been given us.And authority has settled on his shoulders.He has been named“The Mighty God is planning grace;The Eternal Father, a peaceable ruler”—
What Christians will say is that this verse is describing "a son" (not G-D's) who is seemingly described as a "Mighty G-D" - they use to support their claim of a divine entity who is referred to as The Son being part of the Biblical theology & literature.
This one is quite easy to disprove.
First of all, the book of Isaiah was written several hundreds years before Jesus was born and the verse here is saying יֶ֣לֶד יֻלַּד, a child has beenborn, which is in the past tense! So this cannot possibly be referring to Jesus.
כי. כל זה בזכות הילד שיולד לנו, וידענו כי בבא סנחריב היה חזקיהו בן שלשים ותשע שנה לכן קראו ילד בעת נבואת הנביא, יש אומרים כי פלא יועץ אל גבור אבי עד הן שמות השם ושם הילד שר שלום, והנכון בעיני כי כל אלה שמו' הילד, פלא שהשם עשה פלא בימיו, יועץ כן היה חזקיה ויועץ המלך (דברי הימים ב' ל' ב'), אל גבור שהיה תקיף, אבי עד שנמשכה מלכות בית דוד בעבורו, ועד כמו שוכן עד (ישעיהו נ"ח ט"ו), שר שלום שהיה שלום בימיו וכן כתוב (דברי הימים ב' ל"ב כ"ב):
For unto us, etc. All this has come to pass through the merit of the child that is born unto us. We know that at the time of the invasion of Sennacherib, Hezekiah was thirty-nine years old; at the time of this prophecy he is, therefore, called child (ילד). פלא יועץ אל גבור אבי עד. According to some, these expressions are names of God, and the following שר שלום, the name of the child. I think that all these words are names of the child; he is called פלא wonder, because God did wonders in his days; יועץ counselling; this is distinctly said of Hezekiah (comp. 2 Chr. 30:2); אל גבור Mighty chief; for Hezekiah was powerful; אבי עד The father of perpetuity, because the reign of the house of David was prolonged through his merits: עַד has here the same meaning as in 58:15. שר שלום Prince of peace because peace was established in his days; comp. 2 Chron. 32:22
וַיִּקְרָא שְׁמוֹ. הַקָּדוֹשׁ בָּרוּךְ הוּא, שֶׁהוּא מַפְלִיא עֵצָה וְאֵל גִּבּוֹר וַאֲבִי עַד, קָרָא שְׁמוֹ שֶׁל חִזְקִיָּהוּ שַׂר שָׁלוֹם (סנהדרין צד א), כִּי שָׁלוֹם וֶאֱמֶת יִהְיֶה בְּיָמָיו (ישעיהו לט:ח):
and...called his name The Holy One, blessed be He, Who gives wondrous counsel, is a mighty God and an everlasting Father, called Hezekiah’s name, “the prince of peace,” since peace and truth will be in his days.
Both Rashi & Ibn Ezra point out that this is referring to Hezekiah, albeit they explain the "mighty G-D" part differently.
נַשְּׁקוּ־בַ֡ר פֶּן־יֶאֱנַ֤ף ׀ וְתֹ֬אבְדוּ דֶ֗רֶךְ כִּֽי־יִבְעַ֣ר כִּמְעַ֣ט אַפּ֑וֹ אַ֝שְׁרֵ֗י כׇּל־ח֥וֹסֵי בֽוֹ׃ {פ}
pay homage in good faith,-d
lest He be angered, and your way be doomed
in the mere flash of His anger.
Happy are all who take refuge in Him.
lest He be angered, and your way be doomed
in the mere flash of His anger.
Happy are all who take refuge in Him.
Christians use this one as evidence as well because the first 2 words could be translated as "kiss the son"
Other than that's not the only way to read this, there is no way this is referring to some divine son/entity.
Who is the son being spoken about then? The one referred to in 2:7!
אֲסַפְּרָ֗ה אֶֽ֫ל־חֹ֥ק יהוה אָמַ֘ר־אֵלַ֥י בְּנִ֥י אַ֑תָּה אֲ֝נִ֗י הַיּ֥וֹם יְלִדְתִּֽיךָ׃
Let me tell of the decree:
the LORD said to me,
“You are My son,
I have fathered you this day.-b
the LORD said to me,
“You are My son,
I have fathered you this day.-b
This is talking about David!! David is the son. G-D is discussing how loyalty must be professed to David, G-D's chosen MORTAL king.
We also see David & his her Solomon referred to as G-D's son in the Book of Samuel.
אֲנִי֙ אֶֽהְיֶה־לּ֣וֹ לְאָ֔ב וְה֖וּא יִֽהְיֶה־לִּ֣י לְבֵ֑ן אֲשֶׁר֙ בְּהַ֣עֲוֺת֔וֹ וְהֹֽכַחְתִּיו֙ בְּשֵׁ֣בֶט אֲנָשִׁ֔ים וּבְנִגְעֵ֖י בְּנֵ֥י אָדָֽם׃
I will be a father to him,And he shall be a son to Me.When he does wrong,I will chastise him With the rod of mortals And the blows of humankind.
The "him" in this case is David's son that will build the Temple.
נשקו בר כמו וינשק לכל אחיו (בראשית מה טו). ובר כמו בן; וכן מה ברי ומה בר בטני (משלי לא ב). או פרושו מן לברי לבב (תהלים עג א) ואם יהיה ענינו בן יהיה פרושו: נשקו זה הבן שקראו האל בן כמו שאמר: בני אתה. וטעם נשקו כמו שהוא מנהג העבד לנשק יד האדון; ואם יהיה ענינו נקי פרושו: מה לכם ולי, כי אני בר לבב ואין בי עון שתבאו ותלחמו בי, אבל עליכם לנשק לי ולהודות שאני מלך במצות האל. ויתכן לפרש בר מן ברו לכם איש (שמואל א יז ח) על דרך: שאול בחיר יהוה' (שם ב כא ו).
Kiss the son: – as (in the verse) “and he kissed all his brethren” (Gen. 45:15). And (the word) בר is the same as בן; and so “What, my son (בני)? ”; and “what, O son (בר) of my womb?” (Prov. 31:2). Or it may be interpreted by “the pure (ברי) of heart” (Ps. 73:1). If its meaning is “son,” this will be its interpretation: Kiss this son whom God has called “son,” as He says (above): Thou art My son. And the command is Kiss, because it is the custom for a servant to kiss the hand of the master. And if its meaning is “pure,” its interpretation is, “What have I to do with you, for I am pure in heart and there is no wickedness in me that ye should come and fight against me? Your duty is to kiss me and to confess that I am king by the command of God.” And בר may also be fittingly interpreted from (the verse) “Choose (ברו) you a man for you” (1 Sam. 17:8), upon the analogy of “Saul the chosen of the Lord” (2 Sam. 21:6).
As can be seen, Radak understands this similarly to the way we do
.
Ibn Ezra interprets 2:12 similarly (albeit a bit differently) to the way we do, with the son being Solomon that G-D is saying that one must side with Solomon against Adoniyahu in the bid for who should be king!
I hope that you can see from all these different verses we've explored that the Jews for Jesus & other Christian groups that try to convince you that the Tanakh supports a Christian theology are lying & deceiving you - the Old Testament & the rest of Tanakh does not support Christianity whatsoever.
Open to comments, questions & suggestions, I hope you enjoyed!