ואת הבהמה תהרגו. אִם אָדָם חָטָא בְּהֵמָה מֶה חָטְאָה? אֶלָּא מִפְּנֵי שֶׁבָּאָה לָאָדָם תַּקָּלָה עַל יָדָהּ לְפִיכָךְ אָמַר הַכָּתוּב תִּסָּקֵל, קַל וָחֹמֶר לָאָדָם, שֶׁיּוֹדֵעַ לְהַבְחִין בֵּין טוֹב לְרַע, וְגוֹרֵם רָעָה לַחֲבֵרוֹ לַעֲבֹר עֲבֵרָה; כַּיּוֹצֵא בַדָּבָר אַתָּה אוֹמֵר אַבֵּד תְּאַבְּדוּן אֶת כָּל הַמְּקֹמוֹת (דברים י"ב), הֲרֵי דְבָרִים קַל וָחֹמֶר, וּמָה אִילָנוֹת שֶׁאֵינָן רוֹאִין וְאֵינָן שׁוֹמְעִין, עַל שֶׁבָּאת תַּקָּלָה עַל יָדָם אָמְרָה תוֹרָה הַשְׁחֵת, שְׂרֹף וְכַלֵּה, הַמַּטֶּה אֶת חֲבֵרוֹ מִדֶּרֶךְ חַיִּים לְדַרְכֵי מִיתָה, עַל אַחַת כַּמָּה וְכַמָּה (ספרא): ואת הבהמה תהרגו AND YE SHALL SLAY THE BEAST — If the man has sinned, what sin has the beast committed? But because the man’s opportunity to stumble (to sin) was occasioned by it, therefore Scripture says, “let it be stoned"! How much the more does this principle apply to a human being who knows to distinguish between good and evil and yet brings evil upon his fellow-man by inducing him to commit a sin. In a similar way you should explain: (Deuteronomy 12:2) “Ye shall utterly destroy all the places [where the nations… served their gods… under every bushy tree]" Now is not the following a logical conclusion? How is it in the case of trees which can neither see nor hear? Merely because an opportunity to sin was occasioned by them Scripture says, "Destroy, burn, exterminate them!״ One who makes his fellow-man deviate from the path of lifeto the path of death, does it not follow all the more that he should be punished? (Sifra, Kedoshim, Chapter 11 5; cf. Sanhedrin 54a, 55a.)