Suggested Discussion Questions:
1) Why do you think such purchases are forbidden?
2) Why do you make negative inferences about people’s motives in this case, but otherwise are supposed to ‘judge the whole of a person favorably (Ethics of the Fathers 1:6)?’ What is the difference?
3) Is this any different than the Mishneh Torah’s law: “It is prohibited to buy from a thief any property he has stolen, such buying being a great sin, since it encourages criminals and causes the thief to steal other property. For if a thief finds no buyer, he will not steal.”
4) What are modern day examples of this? What should be forbid ourselves from buying today as a result of this ordinance?